Monday, January 4, 2010

Good Question

Job 1:1 There was a man in the land of Uz, whose name was Job; and that man was perfect and upright, and one that feared God, and eschewed evil.

The Bible says Job was "perfect and upright".  What does perfect mean here?  Why does the Bible use the word perfect if he is sinful?

Job lived before the coming of Jesus Christ. The only way that he can be called perfect is for him to be a man who is exercising faith in God.  Just like Abraham, Job believed God and it was reckoned to him for righteousness. 
 

Genesis 15:6 And he believed in the LORD; and he counted it to him for righteousness.
 
The word perfect does not mean sinless.  It means devout or pious.  It is like Joseph being called a just man in Matthew 1:19.  Job knew he needed a redeemer.
 
Job 19:25-27 For I know that my redeemer liveth, and that he shall stand at the latter day upon the earth: And though after my skin worms destroy this body, yet in my flesh shall I see God: Whom I shall see for myself, and mine eyes shall behold, and not another; though my reins be consumed within me.
 
He was not trusting in his own righteousness.  He was trusting in God. 
 
Job was also a man of repentance:
 
Job 42:5-6 I have heard of thee by the hearing of the ear: but now mine eye seeth thee. Wherefore I abhor myself, and repent in dust and ashes.
 
A man of repentance is a man who recognizes his sin.  A man of faith is one who trusts in God.  A man who is called perfect and upright is one who is declared righteous by God because of his faith.